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QUESTION 49
You are a network administrator at Certkiller . You want to configure a T1 (1,536M) FR PVC for voice and
data traffic. You do not expect voice to require more than half the bandwidth.
Which of the following would be the most sufficient FRTS configuration?

A. map-class frame-relay FRST-voice frame-relay cir 1536000 frame-relay bc 15360 frame-relay be 0 frame-relay mincir 1536000
B. map-class frame-relay FRTS-voice frame-relay cir 1536000 frame-relay bc 15360 frame-relay be 0 frame-relay mincir 768000

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 50
You are a network administrator at Certkiller . Your newly appointed Certkiller trainee wants to know what
is NOT a primary cause of echo in a voice network.

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QUESTION 54
Click on the calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.
A customer is deploying an Exchange 2010 environment on an EMC VNX. There will be 30,000 mailboxes distributed across mailbox servers within a DAG (database availability group) that maintains three database copies. Each user sends approximately 350 messages per day. The customer wants to use 600 GB 15K drives in a RAID 5 group. How many spindles are needed to support the performance required for thisExchange environment?

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QUESTION 45
During the installation of a VNX gateway system you are loading the VNX OE for File software and the console prompts you for the Control Station IP settings used by the internal network to manage the DME. What action should you take?
A. In a separate console session, perform a ping operation to prevent duplicate IP addressing.
B. Configure the internal Control Station networking to obtain its IP addressing from BOOTP.
C. Accept the default settings unless they conflict with the Control Station public network addressing.

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QUESTION 14
Which statement is correct about the _RV.INFO.RVCM.DELIVERY.CONFIRM.subject advisory?
A. A listener sends this advisory to confirm receipt of a certified message.
B. The sender presents this advisory after deleting the message from itsledger.

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QUESTION 20:
When using TIBCO EMS message selectors in client applications, which two are valid performance considerations? (Choose two.)
A. Server performance can be negatively impacted when message selectors are used.

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QUESTION 63
Which two statements are correct about default MPLS behavior on Junos devices? (Choose two.)
A. The MPLS label is popped by the penultimate router.
B. The MPLS label is popped by the ultimate router.
C. The MPLS label is pushed by the ingress router.
D. The MPLS label is swapped by the ingress router.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 64
Which two statements regarding the MPLS label information base are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The MPLS label information base is stored in the inet.3 table.

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QUESTION 31
Routing is disabled in all VLANs by default.
A. True
B. False

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 32
What information can you find using the show edp command?

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QUESTION NO: 32
Which of the following techniques can be used to obtain a precise count of clock cycles when profiling software over an arbitrarily long period of time using the Performance Monitoring Unit?
A. A dedicated real-time clock to provide the total cycle count
B. Use of the divide-by 64 counting option to avoid an overflow of the cycle counter
C. Use of the overflow interrupts, to extend the range of the built-in 32-bit counter
D. Modification of the application software being profiled, to insert timestamps at regular intervals
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 33
Which of the following is preserved in dormant mode?

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QUESTION 26
Exchange 2010 is installed on a virtual machine using VMDK files. Replication Manager is being used to
take snapshots of the virtual machine files and back them up to disk. After a few weeks, the Exchange
server stopsfunctioning.